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NEW QUESTION # 119
A document describes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets. Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified. This document is a typical work product produced as part of:
- A. test analysis
- B. test monitoring and control
- C. test design
- D. test implementation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The document that describes the test procedures, including the order in which test cases are to be executed according to dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions, is typically produced during the test implementation phase. During this phase, detailed test procedures and scripts are developed, organized, and prioritized for execution. The main goal of test implementation is to ensure that all test cases are prepared and structured in a way that supports efficient and effective test execution.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 5.1.6, page 49: Test Implementation
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests
- B. Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics
- C. Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system
- D. The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard
Answer: B
Explanation:
Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics. Non- functional testing is the process of testing the quality attributes of a system, such as performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Non-functional testing can be applied at any test level and can use both black-box and white-box test techniques. Non-functional testing can cover both technical aspects, such as response time, throughput, resource consumption, etc., and non-technical aspects, such as user satisfaction, accessibility, compliance, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
ISTQBCertified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.3.1, page 13; ISTQBGlossary v4.
02, page 40.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the purpose of confirmation testing versus regression testing?
- A. Regression testing and confirmation testing are interchangeable and serve the same purpose.
- B. Confirmation testing verifies all system requirements, while regression testing ensures that no additional test cases are needed.
- C. Confirmation testing ensures the entire system functions as expected, whereas regression testing focuses only on modified components.
- D. The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Confirmation testingis performed after a defect is fixed to confirm it no longer exists (A).Regression testing ensures new defects have not been introduced in unchanged parts of the system. Regression testing is broader than confirmation testing and covers unmodified areas affected by the changes. Options B, C, and D misrepresent the relationship and scope of these tests.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques
- B. In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques
- C. In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations
- D. Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because in Agile software development, work product documentation, such as user stories, acceptance criteria, or test cases, tends to be lightweight and concise, as the focus is on working software and frequent communication rather than comprehensive documentation. Manual tests tend to be often unscripted, as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques, such as error guessing or exploratory testing, which rely onthe tester's skills, knowledge, and creativity to find defects and provide feedback. References: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.2, Section 3.2.1.2
NEW QUESTION # 123
Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.
Which of the following review types does this review refer to?
- A. Audit
- B. Walkthrough
- C. Inspection
- D. Informal review
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because a walkthrough is a type of review where the author of the work product leads the review process and explains the work product to the reviewers. The reviewers are not required to prepare for the review in advance, and the main objective of the walkthrough is to establish a common understanding of the work product and to identify any major defects or issues. A walkthrough is usually informal and does not follow a defined process or roles. In this case, the review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect matches the characteristics of a walkthrough. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 124
Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria?
- A. Yes. Going by cost as an exit criterion constrains the testing project which will hello achieve the desired quality level defined for the project
- B. Yes. Spending too much money on test ng will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an exit criterion helps avoid this
- C. No. The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion
- D. No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cost can be regarded as an exit criterion for testing, because it is a factor that affects the profitability and feasibility of the software product. Testing is an investment that aims to improve the quality and reliability of the software product, but it also consumes resources, such as time, money, and human effort. Therefore, testing should be planned and executed in a way that balances the cost and benefit of testing activities. Having cost as an exit criterion helps to avoid spending too much money on testing, which may result in an unprofitable product or a loss of competitive advantage. Cost can also help to prioritize and focus the testing efforts on the most critical and valuable features and functions of the software product. However, cost should not be the only exit criterion for testing, as it may not reflect the true quality and risk level of the software product. Other exit criteria, such as defect rate, test coverage, user satisfaction, etc., should also be considered and defined in the test plan.
The other options are incorrect, because they either deny the importance of cost as an exit criterion, or they make false or unrealistic assumptions about the cost of testing. Option B is incorrect, because the financial value of product quality can be estimated, for example, by using cost-benefit analysis, return on investment, or cost of quality models. Option C is incorrect, because going by cost as an exit criterion does not necessarily constrain the testing project or help achieve the desired quality level. Cost is a relative and variable factor that depends on the scope, complexity, and context of the software product and the testing project. Option D is incorrect, because the cost of testing can be measured effectively, for example, by using metrics, such as test effort, test resources, test tools, test environment, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants
- B. Acceptance criteria for user stories should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded
- C. Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item
- D. User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories
Answer: C
Explanation:
Acceptance criteria for user stories are crucial in defining the specific requirements that a piece of software must meet to be accepted by the user or stakeholder. These criteria often include data definitions such as format, allowed values, and default values, ensuring that the software behaves correctly with the expected data inputs.
Option A is incorrect because user acceptance tests are not usually automated; they are often conducted manually by end-users. Option C is incorrect because acceptance criteria should cover both positive and negative scenarios to ensure comprehensive testing. Option D is incorrect because tests derived from acceptance criteria can indeed be included in the testing quadrants, particularly in the quadrant related to business-facing tests that critique the product.
Reference:
ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, section on user acceptance testing and acceptance criteria.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Use Scenario 1 "Happy Tomatoes" (from the previous question).
When running test caseTC_59, the actual result fort = 35degrees Celsius isOUTPUT = Xinstead of the expected output.
Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?
- A. A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported
- B. Description of the structure of the test team
- C. Expected results and actual results
- D. Identification of the test object and test environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
A defect report should contain relevant details to help developersreproduce and fix the defect efficiently.
The essential elements include:
* Test object & environment (A)- To ensure reproducibility.
* Title & summary (B)- For quick identification.
* Expected vs. actual results (D)- To describe the discrepancy.
Thestructure of the test team (C)is irrelevant for defect tracking and resolution.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 5.5 - Defect Management
NEW QUESTION # 127
Use Scenario 1 "Happy Tomatoes" (from the previous question).
Using theBoundary Value Analysis (BVA)technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.
- A. {6,7,8,21,22,29,31}
- B. {7,8,21,22,29,30}
- C. {6,7,21,22,29,30}
- D. {7,8,22,23,29,30}
Answer: B
Explanation:
Boundary Value Analysis (BVA)focuses on test cases at the edges of partitions because defects often occur at boundaries. The temperature ranges are:
* #7 (Too cold # W)
* [8-21] (Standstill # X)
* [22-29] (Ideal # Y)
* #30 (Too hot # Z)
Atwo-point BVAmeans testing both thelower and upper boundary valuesof each partition.The correct selection{7,8,21,22,29,30}includes:
* 7 # Boundary of Too Cold (W)
* 8 # Lower boundary of Standstill (X)
* 21 # Upper boundary of Standstill (X)
* 22 # Lower boundary of Ideal (Y)
* 29 # Upper boundary of Ideal (Y)
* 30 # Lower boundary of Too Hot (Z)
This ensures maximum boundary coverage.
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLYNOTpart of atest progress report?
- A. A detailed assessment of product quality
- B. Obstacles and their workarounds
- C. Test metrics to show the current status of the test process
- D. New or changed risks
Answer: A
Explanation:
Atest progress reportprovides an overview of testing activities, metrics, and identified risks. It focuses on tracking testing progress rather thanevaluating overall product quality (B), which is typically included in a test summary reportafter testing is completed.
* (A) is correctbecause obstacles (challenges) are reported to ensure test execution stays on track.
* (C) is correctas test metrics help stakeholders track execution progress.
* (D) is correctbecause new or changed risks impact test focus and priorities.
A test progress reporttracks execution and informs stakeholders about ongoing testing activities.
NEW QUESTION # 129
For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases
Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?
- A. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1
- B. TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3
- C. TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1
- D. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because it follows the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order. TC4, TC3, and TC2 are executed first because they have the highest priority. TC6 is executed next because it has a logical dependency on TC2. TC1 is executed next because it has a logical dependency on TC5. Finally, TC5 is executed last because it has the lowest priority. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents
NEW QUESTION # 130
The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:
1. Component (unit) testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Acceptance testing
An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model
- B. It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.
- C. It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test
- D. It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality
Answer: A
Explanation:
The V-model is a software development life cycle model that defines four test levels that correspond to four development phases: component (unit) testing with component design, integration testing with architectural design, system testing with system requirements, and acceptance testing with user requirements. The V-model emphasizes the importance of verifying and validating each phase of development with a corresponding level of testing, and ensuring that the test objectives, test basis, and test artifacts are aligned and consistent across the test levels. Therefore, an organization that wants to follow the V-model cannot do away with integration testing, as it would break the symmetry and completeness of the V-model, and compromise the quality and reliability of the software or system under test. Integration testing is a test level that aims to test the interactions and interfaces between components or subsystems, and to detect any defects or inconsistencies that may arise from the integration of different parts of the software or system. Integration testing is essential for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as a whole, and for identifying and resolving any integration issues early in the development process. Skipping integration testing would increase the risk of finding serious defects later in the test process, or worse, in the production environment, which would be more costly and difficult to fix, and could damage the reputation and credibility of the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
The other options are incorrect because:
A) It is not allowed as organizations can decide on the test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test. While it is true that the choice and scope of test levels may vary depending on the context of the system under test, such as the size, complexity, criticality, and risk level of the system, the organization cannot simply ignore or skip a test level that is defined and required by the chosen software development life cycle model. The organization must follow the principles and guidelines of the software development life cycle model, and ensure that the test levels are consistent and coherent with the development phases. If the organization wants to have more flexibility and adaptability in choosing the test levels, it should consider using a different software development life cycle model, such as an agile or iterative model, that allows for more dynamic and incremental testing approaches.
B) It is not allowed because integration testing is not an important test level and can be dispensed with. This statement is false and misleading, as integration testing is a very important test level that cannot be dispensed with. Integration testing is vital for testing the interactions and interfaces between components or subsystems, and for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as a whole. Integration testing can reveal defects or inconsistencies that may not be detected by component (unit) testing alone, such as interface errors, data flow errors, integration logic errors, or performance degradation. Integration testing can also help to verify and validate the architectural design and the integration strategy of the software or system, and to ensure that the software or system meets the specified and expected quality attributes, such as reliability, usability, security, and maintainability. Integration testing can also provide feedback and confidence to the developers and stakeholders about the progress and quality of the software or system development. Therefore, integration testing is a crucial and indispensable test level that should not be skipped or omitted.
C) It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring it means definite poor product quality. This statement is partially true, as integration testing is a very important test level that should not be ignored, and skipping it could result in poor product quality. However, this statement is too strong and absolute, as it implies that integration testing is the only factor that determines the product quality, and that ignoring it would guarantee a poor product quality. This is not necessarily the case, as there may be other factors that affect the product quality, such as the quality of the requirements, design, code, and other test levels, the effectiveness and efficiency of the test techniques and tools, the competence and experience of the developers and testers, the availability and adequacy of the resources and environment, the management and communication of the project, and the expectations and satisfaction of the customers and users. Therefore, while integration testing is a very important test level that should not be skipped, it is not the only test level that matters, and skipping it does not necessarily mean definite poor product quality, but rather a higher risk and likelihood of poor product quality.
Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.3, pages 16-18; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 38-39; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 104, page 36.
NEW QUESTION # 131
The whole-team approach:
- A. promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product
- B. promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques
- C. is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories
- D. is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because the whole-team approach is a way of working in agile projects where all team members share the responsibility for the quality of the product, and collaborate on delivering value to the customer. The whole-team approach involves testers, developers, business analysts, product owners, and other stakeholders in planning, designing, developing, testing, and delivering the product. The whole-team approach fosters communication, feedback, learning, and continuous improvement within the team. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 132
Which ONE of the following is a GOOD testing practice that is INDEPENDENT of the chosen SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) model?
- A. For every software development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity, ensuring that all development activities are subject to quality assurance.
- B. Testers are involved in reviewing work products as soon as the final version of this documentation is available so that this earlier testing and defect detection can support the "shift-left" strategy.
- C. Different test levels have specific and overlapping test objectives, allowing tests to be appropriate to specific test object types while managing redundancy.
- D. Test analysis and design for a specific test level begin during the corresponding development phase of the SDLC, allowing testing to follow the principle of late testing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Different test levels (unit, integration, system, acceptance) have specific objectives while sometimes overlapping to ensure comprehensive testing (D). Option A contradicts shift-left principles, B encourageslate testing (which is ineffective), and C incorrectly assumes that all development activities require direct test actions.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 2.2 - Test Levels
NEW QUESTION # 133
In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?
- A. Q1
- B. Q2
- C. Q3
- D. Q4
Answer: C
Explanation:
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during the two-hour test session belong to the testing quadrant Q3. The testing quadrants are a classification of testing types based on two dimensions: the test objectives (whether the testing is focused on supporting the team or critiquing the product) and the test basis (whether the testing is based on the technology or the business). The testing quadrants are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, and Q4, and each quadrant represents a different testing perspective, such as unit testing, acceptance testing, usability testing, or performance testing. The testing quadrant Q3 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the business perspective, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, user acceptance testing, alpha testing, beta testing, etc. The unscripted tests performed by the tester in the given scenario are examples of exploratory testing and usability testing, as they are based on the tester's experience, intuition, and learning of the web application, and they focus on some specific usability issues, such as the user interface, the user satisfaction, the user feedback, etc. The other options are incorrect, because:
* The testing quadrant Q1 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the technology perspective, such as unit testing, component testing, integration testing, system testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by developers or testers who have access to the source code, the design, the architecture, or the configuration of the software system, and they aim to verify the functionality, the quality, and the reliability of the software system at different levels of integration.
* The testing quadrant Q2 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the business perspective, such as functional testing, acceptance testing, story testing, scenario testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or customers who have access to the requirements, the specifications, the user stories, or the business processes of the software system, and they aim to validate that the software system meets the expectations and the needs of the users and the stakeholders.
* The testing quadrant Q4 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the technology perspective, such as performance testing, security testing, reliability testing, compatibility testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or specialists who have access to the tools, the metrics, the standards, or the benchmarks of the software system, and they aim to evaluate the non-functional aspects of the software system, such as the efficiency, the security, the reliability, or the compatibility of the software system under different conditions or environments. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles
* ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Testing Quadrant, Exploratory Testing, Usability Testing, Unit Testing, Component Testing, Integration Testing, SystemTesting, Functional Testing, Acceptance Testing, Story Testing, Scenario Testing, Performance Testing, Security Testing, Reliability Testing, Compatibility Testing
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following types of tools is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?
- A. Static analysis tool
- B. Containerization tool
- C. Fault seeding tool
- D. Test data preparation tool
Answer: A
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard. Static analysis tools analyze code without executing it, checking for adherence to coding standards, potential errors, and code quality issues. They are designed to detect deviations from predefined coding standards and ensure that the code conforms to best practices and guidelines.
References:
ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 3.2.3 on Static Analysis and its applications The syllabus explains that static analysis tools are used to enforce coding standards and improve code quality by detecting issues early in the development process.
CTFL NEW
NEW QUESTION # 135
Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?
- A. Application behaviour is written in Given/When/Then format and tests are then written and run
- B. Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests
- C. Code is refactored first then tests are written and run
- D. First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated
Answer: D
Explanation:
A test-first approach involves writing tests before writing the code. In this approach, initially, the tests fail because the corresponding functionality is not yet implemented. Afterward, the code is written or modified to make the tests pass. This cycle is repeated iteratively. This method ensures that the code is developed based on predefined tests and helps in identifying issues early in the development process.
NEW QUESTION # 136
Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?
- A. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised
- B. Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage
- C. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised
- D. The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage
Answer: B
Explanation:
Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all branches in the control flow of the code are executed at least once by the test cases. A branch is a basic block of code that has a single entry point and a single exit point, and a decision is a point in the code where the control flow can take more than one direction, such as an if-then-else statement, a switch-case statement, a loop statement, etc. The decision outcomes are the possible paths that can be taken from a decision, such as the then branch or the else branch, the case branch or the default branch, the loop body or the loop exit, etc. The other statements are false, because:
The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually higher than that needed to achieve full statement coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all executable statements in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. This is because branch coverage is a stronger criterion than statement coverage, as it implies statement coverage, but not vice versa. For example, a single test case can achieve full statement coverage for an if-then-else statement, but two test cases are needed to achieve full branch coverage, as both the then branch and the else branch need to be exercised.
If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have not necessarily been exercised, as unconditional branches are branches that do not depend on any decision, and are always executed, such as a goto statement, a break statement, a return statement, etc. Unconditional branches are not part of the branch coverage criterion, as they do not represent different paths in the control flow of the code. However, they are part of the statement coverage criterion, as they are executable statements in the code.
If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have not necessarily been exercised, as a decision table is a test design technique that represents the logical relationships between multiple conditions and their corresponding actions, in a tabular format. A decision table can have more combinations of conditions than the number of decision outcomes in the code, as each condition can have two or more possible values, such as true or false, yes or no, etc. For example, a decision table with four conditions can have 16 combinations of conditions, but the corresponding code may have only two decision outcomes, such as pass or fail. To exercise all combinations of conditions in a decision table, a stronger test coverage criterion is needed, such as condition combination coverage, which requires that all possible combinations of condition outcomes in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.3.1, Test Coverage Criteria Based on the Structure of the Software ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Branch Coverage, Statement Coverage, Branch, Decision, Decision Outcome, Unconditional Branch, Decision Table, Condition Combination Coverage
NEW QUESTION # 137
Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?
- A. Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered
- B. Archive the testware for use in future test projects
- C. Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project
- D. Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A test task that usually occurs during test implementation is to make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered. The test environment is the hardware and software configuration on which the tests are executed, and it should be as close as possible to the production environment where the software system will operate. The test environment should be planned, prepared, and verified before the test execution, to ensure that the test conditions, the test data, the test tools, and the test interfaces are available and functional. The other options are not test tasks that usually occur during test implementation, but rather test tasks that occur during other test activities, such as:
Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests: This is a test task that usually occurs during test analysis and design, which is the activity of analyzing the test basis, designing the test cases, and identifying the test data. During this activity, the testers can use techniques such as root cause analysis, defect prevention, or defect analysis, to find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the previous tests, and to prevent or reduce the occurrence of similar failures in the future tests.
Archive the testware for use in future test projects: This is a test task that usually occurs during test closure, which is the activity of finalizing and reporting the test results, evaluating the test process, and identifying the test improvement actions. During this activity, the testers can archive the testware, which are the test artifacts produced during the testing process, such as the test plan, the test cases, the test data, the test results, the defect reports, etc., for use in future test projects, such as regression testing, maintenance testing, or reuse testing.
Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project: This is a test task that usually occurs during test monitoring and control, which is the activity of tracking and reviewing the test progress, status, and quality, and taking corrective actions when necessary. During this activity, the testers can gather the metrics, which are the measurements of the testing process, such as the test coverage, the defect density, the test effort, the test duration, etc., that are used to guide the test project, such as planning, estimating, scheduling, reporting, or improving the testing process. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.4, Test Implementation1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.5, Test Execution1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.6, Test Closure1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Environment, Test Condition, Test Data, Test Tool, Test Interface, Failure, Root Cause Analysis, Defect Prevention, Defect Analysis, Testware, Regression Testing, Maintenance Testing, Reuse Testing, Test Coverage, Defect Density, Test Effort, Test Duration2
NEW QUESTION # 138
Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:
* most optimistic = 6 person hours
* most likely = 30 person hours
* most pessimistic = 54 person hours
Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?
- A. The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours
- B. The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours
- C. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate
- D. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate
Answer: B
Explanation:
The three-point test estimation technique is a method of estimating the test effort based on three initial estimates: the most optimistic, the most likely, and the most pessimistic. The technique uses a weighted average of these three estimates to calculate the final estimate, which is also known as the expected value. The formula for the expected value is:
Expected value = (most optimistic + 4 * most likely + most pessimistic) / 6 Using the given values, the expected value is:
Expected value = (6 + 4 * 30 + 54) / 6 Expected value = 30 person hours However, the expected value is not the only factor to consider when estimating the test effort. The technique also calculates the standard deviation, which is a measure of the variability or uncertainty of the estimates.
The formula for the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (most pessimistic - most optimistic) / 6
Using the given values, the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (54 - 6) / 6 Standard deviation = 8 person hours
The standard deviation can be used to determine a range of possible values for the test effort, based on a certain level of confidence. For example, using a 68% confidence level, the range is:
Expected value ± standard deviation
Using the calculated values, the range is:
30 ± 8 person hours
Therefore, the final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours, which is option A.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.3.2, page 24-25; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 33.
NEW QUESTION # 139
Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:
* most optimistic = 6 person hours
* most likely = 30 person hours
* most pessimistic = 54 person hours
Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?
- A. The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours
- B. The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours
- C. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate
- D. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The three-point test estimation technique is a method of estimating the test effort based on three initial estimates: the most optimistic, the most likely, and the most pessimistic. The technique uses a weighted average of these three estimates to calculate the final estimate, which is also known as the expected value. The formula for the expected value is:
Expected value = (most optimistic + 4 * most likely + most pessimistic) / 6 Using the given values, the expected value is:
Expected value = (6 + 4 * 30 + 54) / 6 Expected value = 30 person hours However, the expected value is not the only factor to consider when estimating the test effort. The technique also calculates the standard deviation, which is a measure of the variability or uncertainty of the estimates. The formula for the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (most pessimistic - most optimistic) / 6
Using the given values, the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (54 - 6) / 6 Standard deviation = 8 person hours
The standard deviation can be used to determine a range of possible values for the test effort, based on a certain level of confidence. For example, using a 68% confidence level, the range is:
Expected value ± standard deviation
Using the calculated values, the range is:
30±8 person hours
Therefore, the final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours, which is option A.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.3.2, page 24-25; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 33.
NEW QUESTION # 140
A test status report should:
- A. always be based on the same template within an organization, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented
- B. specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organization that were chosen at the outset of the test project
- C. specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them
- D. be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product
Answer: C
Explanation:
A test status report communicates the current status, progress, and issues encountered during testing to stakeholders. It is crucial for effective test management and decision-making.
* Option A: Correct as it involves reporting impediments and solutions, which are essential for ongoing
* test activities.
* Option B: Incorrect because test status reports are not limited to test completion activities and focus more on ongoing test status rather than final unmitigated risks.
* Option C: Incorrect as the structure and contents of reports should be tailored to the audience's needs to ensure effective communication.
* Option D: Incorrect because specifying communication lines is typically done in the test plan, not the status report.
Thus, option A best describes a key aspect of a test status report.
NEW QUESTION # 141
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests
- B. Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics
- C. Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system
- D. The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard
Answer: B
Explanation:
Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics. Non- functional testing is the process of testing the quality attributes of a system, such as performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Non-functional testing can be applied at any test level and can use both black-box and white-box test techniques. Non-functional testing can cover both technical aspects, such as response time, throughput, resource consumption, etc., and non-technical aspects, such as user satisfaction, accessibility, compliance, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.3.1, page 13; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 40.
NEW QUESTION # 142
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